“…abortion was practiced in Greek times as well as in the Roman Era…. Greek and Roman law afforded little protection to the unborn.”
Roe vs. Wade, supreme court decision which legalized abortion
Question: why did the supreme court have to go all the way back to ancient Roman times to find a precedent for legalizing abortion? Answer; It had been outlawed for nearly 2000 years in the Christian nations, that long. Do I need to mention that slavery was also legal in Rome? All historians acknowledge that Rome was built on the back of slaves. And what about the gladiatorial games in which hundreds of men and women were killed as the crowds roared? Their rulers were worshipped as gods and failing to worship a ruler meant death. So again, why did the supreme court use ancient Rome for a legal precedent for abortion- could not slavery, gladiator games and forced worship of leaders be also found constitutional under such precedent?
What could not be used as legal precedent if we allow the courts to go back into pagan history to find precedent for every popular quirk of the culture? This is not good jurisprudence, to put it mildly. And yet many Americans spew hatred towards the South and those who fought for the south, while supporting identical arguments to kill babies. That’s called blind hypocrisy.
In the Dred Scott case of 1857; supreme court decision that legalized slavery
“…that unfortunate race…had for more than a century before been regarded as beings of an inferior order [and] they had no rights which the white man was bound to respect.”
Have a great day